:: to the teeth ::    thoughts on social justice, medicine, race, hope and beats

"Another world is not only possible, she is on her way.
On a quiet day, I can hear her breathing." :: Arundhati Roy ::

"The most common way people give up their power is by thinking they don't have any." :: Alice Walker ::
Sunday, January 19, 2003  

Okay so last week during lecture, one of our attendings in ob-gyn (I won't name names cuz I can't remember 'em) said that if we ever had an obgyn patient under anesthesia, we should take advantage of the opportunity to practice internal examination. That struck me as a little unsettling, but then thought that I was just being naiive and that perhaps consent to perform surgical procedures also included implied consent to perform such exams. Not bothering to confirm the veracity of that assumption, nor figuring out what I would do if asked to perform an exam on a sedated patient, I decided to not give the issue further thought. Then today, I ran into this article discussing a recent study in the UK about medical students performing pelvic exams without consent. Exactly what do we have consent to do when we consent our patients for procedures or surgeries? Anyone have an idea what our school's policy is?

posted by Rahat | 1/19/2003 12:39:00 PM | |


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